Back to another horrible run this evening, down 100 after 200+ hands.
Couldn't hit any draws despite betting them, was up for a while, but I think the whole session was about break-even except for these hands:
I raise to 1.5 on AQ. $10 shorty pushes, and I call. He has 88 as expected. I miss and he rivers an 8. I just cannot for the life of me hit any coinflip at the moment. So, that's -10.
Then I limp in SB with A9 after several limpers. Flop AJ9. I bet, LP calls. Turn something like a 6. I check, he bets 4.50 (pot 6), and I make it 16. He calls. River 5. Well, possible straight but that's no worry after this action. He bets 6, and I just mini-raise. He calls (!!!) with 99
Nice was the fact that he only let me lose 30 here. Thanks, whoever you are!
Then a hand where I'd be interested in opinions. I have KK and have indeed been raising fairly loose by the standards of the table (although in tight mode). Basically, the table seems to like to limp all kinds of stuff, such as the 99 of the previous hand.
I make it 1.5 in EP and get 3 callers. Flop 862r. Checked to me, I bet 4 into the pot of 6. Folds to BB, who hasn't done anything rash as of yet, and he CRs to 12. Hmmmm... I really feel like this can be a lot of stuff. Overpair, doesn't smell quite like set, although possible, A8, 2 pair or even pretty much any 8. I suppose it is a 4-way pot, so there should be some strength. Also, semi-bluffs seem pretty rare at the 50s, so I have my doubts about its being a draw, particularly with no flush draw on the flop.
In any case, I call. Turn comes Qd making a flush draw. He now pushes for 36.50. I call, and he has 86 for 2 pair. I don't improve (of course--and I do have 8 outs).
Is this just an obvious laydown against someone who hasn't made big bluffs? I felt here like he could be trying to push me off of a winner with this big bet--but was obviously wrong.