hello, i've just read iceman's article titled 'handling bad beats' and there were a couple of thing that i noticed, not sure if these are typo's or miscalculations or what but just thought i'd mention them

In the 8th paragraph in the below link, look at the hand mentioned


QhJs v 8c6c and the flop is Kc-Tc-3s. then he says q-j is a 4-1 favourite. now, how can queen high be a 4-1 favourite over ANY hand despite the straight draw? i thought it would be roughly evens and checked and infact 8-6 is 51%.

Another thing....he says when u get it all-in with KK against JJ for $100 pot he wins $60 in EV terms. but since KK is roughly 80% here depending on suits, or 4-1, wouldnt it be around $80 EV?

Sorry if i'm out of place to be mentioning this in a my first few posts!

Cheers

On the first hand you're right, on the second hand he's right.

If you're an 80:20 favourite, that means you'll win the whole pot 80% of the time, and lose it 20% of the time. Thus you'll win 80% of $200, which is $160, or a $60 profit on your original 100 stake.

I think I know what's going on here: you have a case of the "disappearing Ace". The article gives as an example Qh Js vs 8c 6c on a Ad Kc Tc 3s board. Your browser isn't displaying the Ad.

Do a search here for the solution to this. Sorry, I remember seeing it a few months ago, but can't remember where.