Played a $5 SNG last night. Blinds are 15/30, I have about 1200, SB has about 550. The only thing I observed from him is that he makes a lot of small bets - the only hand he showed was when he stayed in a 4-way pot with a double paired board; he only showed A high. So I'm not too impressed so far.
I have
in MP; I open-raise to 125. Only SB calls without hesitation. Flop is
. To my surprise, he bets out 100.
I think a while. What can he have? A flush draw is unlikely, since I hold the
. Something in the range of TT - QQ is possible. If he has a set then I'm drawing dead.
How likely are these? As I said, flush draw not very likely; would he call with KQs? A set of 9's is possible, but statistically unlikely; also, why would he bet out 100 if he can expect me to be aggressive on the flop? Almost everyone would check-raise or slowplay a set here. Then: an overpair? With KK or AA he would probably have reraised before the flop. Also, he could check-raise me or make a big bet right away. If he has, say, JJ, why would he make such a bet? Either he puts me on a higher overpair or he puts me on AK, possibly with a flush draw. In neither case I see the point of a $100 bet in a $300 pot. (If there is a point, please let me know.)
I somehow got convinced that he most likely had overcards or a medium high pair and was testing the waters. And I got convinced that if I put him all-in, he could only call with a set or a pair of aces and that he would not call with a pair of jacks.
So, I put him all-in, and he called instantaneously. He had A9 for TPTK, and took the pot.
Did I overestimate my chances here? Was I wrong to assume that he would fold most of the time? I would not dream of calling and risking the tournament without a set (or a pair of aces, but then I would have reraised preflop). And finally, did I somehow give away that I had AK? A preflop raise of 4X the BB is not that large, is it? He either thinks I have overcards or a high pair. If he calls with TPTK he must be pretty convinced I don't have the pair...
Pieter