Let's say the BB flips over his hand at this time showing you that he had KK - is a call correct? The SB has 5 outs of 45 unknown cards remaining or 8:1 against while the pot is offering 15:1. So a call is justified and correct here. After the call there is 16 bets and the turn comes an offsuit deuce. The SB checks and the BB bets. The SB is now getting 18:2 pot odds or about 9:1 and will make his hand 5 times in 44 or still about 8:1 making a call correct once again. So we find that even if the SB knew what the BB had - he would still be correct to call.
Now let's suggest that the BB didn't raise. There would be 9 bets on the flop. The SB would bet again and the BB would correctly raise and when the raise got back to the SB the SB would be getting 12:1 on the same 8:1 shot. Clearly a call. On the turn the BB bets again and now the SB would be offered pot odds of 14:2 or 7:1 on an 8:1 shot... no longer does the SB have the correct pot odds to call (yes I know that one could bring implied odds into this and justify a call - but let's leave it at that for the sake of this argument and say that your opponent has correctly put you on AQ and would not call on the river if either showed up).
If the SB was going to call regardless - then you want to create a situation in which he is incorrect to call - keeping the pot smaller accomplished this.Statistics: Posted by TheUnknownPlayer — Sat Dec 04, 2004 2:34 am
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