You say that if 2 people start with a pocket pair that only 2% of the time both will flop sets. But since we dont know if the opponent started with a pair, can we really use this 2% figure?
The reason Im asking is that I was trying to figure out this exact question the other day when I lost set over set twice in 10 minutes.
Is there any way to figure the odds of hitting a set and another guy having a set? Its probably not possible since you never know how many opponents you'll have.
What if you say there are 5 people seeing the flop, can you figure it then? Im not even close to being an odds expert, although once Im told the odds of something, I will rarely forget.
This should actually be in the odds forum so Im going to make a post over there.Statistics: Posted by iceman5 — Thu Jan 27, 2005 9:08 pm
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