As SF pointed out, the fact I called with no draws meant that I felt I was ahead on the flop, and the turn changed nothing.
So after yet more hesitation I check-raised all-in. He thought for ages then folded ... presumably he had a reasonable J?
MG - (why) do you prefer calling the flop then betting the turn (over reraising the flop)? What range of hands is that more effective against?
Presumably villain's range of hands is something like JJ, TT, JT, 77, 89s vs A-QJ, KQ, [Qs], [9s]. Possibly [Ks], AA, KK?
If I'd reraised the flop as SF suggested, and he'd just called ... I think I'd have pushed the turn on any reasonably safe card (ie putting him on a draw). Would that have been a better line than the one I took?Statistics: Posted by Smokin'Al — Wed Mar 30, 2005 4:58 pm
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