It's the other way around, actually. Value bet range is always top half of calling range--and is determined by the call range.

B's call range is determined exclusively by bluff prevention. He has to call enough to prevent A from profitably bluffing at 1.

If A never bluffs, B's call range will be completely different. Suppose A value bets only and keeps the same range of [0,1/18]. Now B has to call 8 for a chance to win 9. B thus needs a win probability of 8/17 to break-even. So, now he only calls on with < (9/17)*(1/18), whatever that is.

That's also the reason why the solution seems counter-intuitive to anyone who has in mind the adage that you need more to call than to bet. That's only the case against players who are rarely bluffing.

The do it for 0.5, 1, 2, 3 , 4 and 10 (you have already done it for 8).
Will give you a good approximation of the answer.