I was running a bunch of hands on Cardplayers odds calculator and came across something that I don't understand.

AK vs. KK is a 70/30 dog, while A2 v.s KK is 71.2/28.8 dog. With the K being dead, shouldn't A2 have a better chance than AK. On the other hand A5 is 70/30 against KK. All hands were offsuit.

I know it's not a huge difference, just curious. Why is this??

Thanks,
Erik

I don't know for certain, but I think because if you hold AK then you are holding one of your opponents outs. With A2 he has 2 K's in the deck, with AK he has only one.

A5 and A2 have the same straight possibilities -- exactly 1.

I would have thought A2 would do better than AK against KK as well.

shobute's explanation makes sense.

Here's another possibility.

If you have AK, the K has to be a different suit from the other guy's two Ks. So if a 4-flush comes in that suit, you have to win. If you have A2, the 2 could be in the same suit as one of your opponent's Ks, so if the 4-flush comes you lose to the higher flush.

Did you use the same suits for the A2 that you used for the AK?
Did you use the same suits for the A5 that you used for the A2?

Shobute's explanation does make sense. I ran them again using the same suits and different suits. When the A2 is the same suit as KK the odds are 28.5. When they are different suits, it's 28.8.

Thanks again

Erik