This is a simple hand I just played. I don’t have a read on MP.

1/2NL. UTG limps, I raise to $10 UTG+1 with [Kd]. MP calls and UTG calls.

Flop $33
[7s][Ts]

I bet $20, MP raises to $50, UTG folds. MP has $88 left after his raise, I have him covered. What do you think MP has, what would you do and why? All comments appreciated.

I would say he has something like [Jh]. If thats the case, youre even money. I would probably reraise all in. If I was in position, I would probably just call.

I can understand a reraise here...but calling??? I think a fold is much better then a call here ice.

Just trying to think this through. I'm sure Ice already figured all this out. He's able to report his findings in just 2 sentences, but it seems complicated to me.

If MP had flopped a flush, especially a medium/low flush, he would have bet it stronger than just $50 because he would want to take it down right now fearing someone had a lone . So that's unlikely. It's also unlikely because most players wouldn't call a solid PF raise cold with just suited connectors, unless they're Doyle Brunson inspired.

The only hand you're truly afraid of is [8s] which has you drawing to very few outs. Other than that, no matter what the other guy has, you likely have all of the spade outs. Hopefully he's not on a set so your A and K are outs too. Again, though, I would think that a set, or an overpair without a spade, would be scared of the flush draw and would bet bigger (or maybe fold the overpair w/o a spade).

So I guess I get to the same result as Ice. MP has JJ or QQ with a spade and you should go all-in. He has to be worried that you could be on AA or KK with a spade, so he should fold.

That was fun.