I was wondering...say you have KQ and your heads up opponent has A2( or any 4 different cards)...suits not mattering...what's the odds at least ONE of you will hit a pair or better? I'm guessing 4 out of 5?

I beleive you are approx 2-1 against to pair up, so the odds of either of you pairing must be even money right?

I believe you are approx 2-1 against to pair up, so the odds of either of you pairing must be even money right?

Wait, thats not right. You will pair up 1 in every 3 tries,so one of you will pair up 1 in every 1.5 tries which makes it what? 3-2?

I think you're underestimating there, ice. You hit a pair or better with 2 cards of different ranks by the river nearly half the time (this is why AK vs 22 is a coinflip; if you only caught two times in three then the 22 would be a big favourite). If you're talking about pairing up on the flop, the odds are 1-(44/50 x 43/49 x 32/48) which is roughly 1/3 (I assume that's what you're talking about with your 1 in 3). So, the odds that two random hands with 2 cards of different ranks will make at LEAST one pair by the river are around 3/4 (75%, or slightly under), whilst the odds that at least one will pair up on the flop are 1-(2/3 x 2/3) = 45% or so. This all assumes that you don't know any dead cards, and that both cards in each hand are different (i.e. NOT AQ vs A8 etc).

Monk
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Yes, I was talking about flopping a pair.

...tight we were only talking about on the flop...thus deciding whether to take a shot at taking it down right there with a bluff.