Betting is said to be capped after 30 BB or $15 per player in this .25/.50 blinds game.

Hand 1: I just lost a hand and haven't had a chance to reload before posting the BB so I only have $11.85 after posting the BB with [5c]
6 handed and everyone limps except the Button. 5 to the flop.
[9s][Qc] Pot $2.50
SB bets $2.50
I'm next. I know SB likes to take shots at the pot so I just call. Mistake probably, but that's not my question.
2 folds and then CO calls $2.50
Pot $10
SB checks. At this point I'm not worried about SB. I feel that CO would have raised if he had a Q so I think there's a good chance he's on a draw. If he has a Q I'm just going to have to pay him. I want to be enough to make him draw, but too much that he's not getting implied odds, right?
I bet $5 which leaves me with $4.35. This gives him 3-1 immediate odds with 8 outs ([5s] gives me a boat). Is this correct move or should I have pushed here?

Hand 2: We both have over 30 BB for all purposes we'll assume we both have 30 BB of $15
5-handed and I have [Qd] in CO
I open-raise to $2, SB calls, BB folds
[6h][Td] Pot $4.50
SB checks, I bet $4, SB calls
Pot $12.50
SB checks, I bet $6, SB raises to $9 and is all-in, I call
SB turns over [4d] and wins with the straight.
Question is that did I mistakenly play this hand perfectly on the flop if I had known exactly what he had?
His implied odds on the flop after my $4 bet are only 17.5 to 4 or a little over 4-1 when his odds of making his straight on the turn 5-1?

Hand 3:
This last question is a bit different. I am in CO and it is folded to me. I have [8c] which is certainly not a good hand, but it is better than a random hand.

I know, almost for a fact, that if I limp for $.50, Button will raise to $2.25. He has a 90% VP$IP and just hits raise pot button EVERY single time OTB. It doesn't matter what 2 cards he has, he will do this so we can just assume that we are up against a totally random hand.

We also know that HE WILL stack off after the flop whether he has top pair, bottom pair, or no pair at all. He has done this almost EVERY TIME, but has hit 2 lucky rivers which have kept him in the game so far (set and BD flush).

If this scenario is true, are we not justified in calling preflop and playing for the entire 30 BB we are allowed almost anytime we flop any pair and folding if we don't?

Here is the actual hand and PLEASE don't say fold preflop unless you've read my description of the Button because I know that's the correct play 99.999% of the time, but the situation is exacltly what I said above and worst case scenario is that I lose $.50 if it gets too heavy before coming back to me. I do close out the action preflop after his raise.

[8c] CO
I open-limp, Button raises to $2.25, all else fold, I call.
[Td][6c] Pot $5.25
I check, Button pets pot (that's what he does), I c/r all-in for $12.75 and he calls

Again, knowing what we know about Button, does anyone play this the same way?
I lose $.50 if I fold
I lose $2.25 if I miss completely
I win $15 when I hit and beat a random hand which is way more often that when I hit and lose $15 to a random hand.

Hand 1: I shove turn

Hand 2: Played fine

Hand 3: You know how to manipulate the villain, so why not wait for a premium hand to do it? The way you punish over aggro players who have position on you is let them take the lead when you are ahead. Limp reraise with big pockets or AK/AQ etc., if he doesnt back off against you, then he is spewing cash in your general direction. By getting fancy with a weak hand, you are playing his game on his court.

Very understandable. I felt like I didn't want to fold it because it was most likely better tha what he was going to raise and for the reasons giving postflop. Also was afraid to raise with it because if he re-raised then I was committing to much of my stack. Also, like I said, I was probably too anxious to get him before he left.

Result was he had [5h] so I was a mile ahead. Hit another 6 on the river.