Villain is 63/15 w/ 40 WTSD but like everyone else on Full Tilt, it seems to work for him. Which way does everyone go broke here? Betting or calling?

[Qh] in SB - We both have full stacks - 7 handed

Villain (UTG+1) raises to $2, I re-raise to $6.50, Villain calls

[2c][7c] Pot $13.50
I bet $10, Villain calls

Pot $33.50
I have a little less than a pot sized bet left




EXACTLY 2 Full orbits later
[Kd] in SB - Everyone has full stack - 8 handed
3 limpers - I raise to $3, BB & 1st limper fold, Villain calls, OTB (unknown - 31/7 thru 30 hands) calls

[6d][7h] Pot $10
I bet $7.50, Villain calls, OTB raises to $40 (probably just hit pot button).

hand 1 you're committed on that turn card, better to bet now to protect your hand.

hand 2 i might be able to fold. the board is fairly uncoordinated and that raise looks pretty strong to me. without some kind of read i probably let it go. (don't like the 3xBB raise in the sb by the way.)

kenny - its a 6x raise isnt it?

Hand #1

I think you have to put it all in. he could be drawing to a single or he could have a mulititude of hands 99-JJ or any [x]. You are ahead of his range for sure I would think.

Hand #2

Thats a BIG RAISE. I would think a set would just smooth call here.That flop is not crazy draws or lots of cards in the zone. Then again KenngG says fold so I am prolly wrong. He could really have anything like 66-QQ, AQ,KQ,. You are 72% against that range. Push it in.

Interesting.

I would put it all in on both hands. But then again maybe its a leak in my game that I dont fold over pairs that readily.

Cool. We all go broke the same way in Hand 1. He had Aces. I guess even a 63/15 maniac gets dealt Aces 50% of the time.

Hand 2 I folded. I made a stupid comment more directed more towards Full Tilt than the player who raised and he asked if I had Jacks afterward which made me 2nd think it. But if he had something like AQ, why the hell didn't he raise preflop OTB?