$1/$2 NL 6 max.

2 hands before this one.......Villain limps 88 in the SB. BB raised and SB called. Flop was T83 and villain in SB min check raised and then stacked BBs JJ on the turn.

Villain limps SB completes and I check my [6h] in the BB.

Pot $6. Flop [6c][3d]. SB checks, I bet $6 and villain instaraises pot (raise to $24). After villains double up with his set, he is up to $225. I cover him. What do you put him on? Whats my play?

Ok, sorry, I misread, and I think it does change things.

The MP limp is a bit confusing to me, and I'd need a bit more on his range. I do feel like it weights things a bit more toward 33. But if that's the case, 54s probably still is, too, and possibly AA. I don't see AK so much on that sequence. He could also have a decent K (KJ, KT) thinking you're probably outkicked in checked BB.

If he has a set, though, he's definitely playing it differently this time with max raise rather than min-raise.

Pot seems to small to shove, which wouldn't be bad if pot:stack ration were different. And betting like 75 is almost the same thing.

I think I might try some kind of calldown more or less, unless your sense of the player is that he almost definitely has 54. In that case, I'd just shove right here. If you consider 54 less likely, I think I'd try to rep it myself if it hits on the turn with maybe half-pot+ on turn, 1/3 pot blocker on river.

Without seeing the player, I think his range should really be something like 33, 54, K9-KJ and maybe AA.

I like a call and a CRAI on the turn, if he has a set of 3s I pay him off. I am really not worried about being behind here.

I think 3-betting the flop lets him get away from some hands that may commit on the turn. If he also has a hand like 77-JJ then you'll probably get a river call out of him if he checks behind on the turn.