A few hands that I just want to other views on.

Hand 1
I get QJT5 ds in the bb. 3 limpers and sb completes, I check.

Flop is [ 5h, Td, Jh ] - I don't have hearts but I have diamonds. 3 pair.

It gets checked around.

Turn is 3s

sb bets 75c and everyone calls but 1. so 3 callers

River is 6s

checked to last person who bets $3. SB folds. I decide to call and everyone else folds. I lose to a 74 straight. Should I have just folded? Is this not worth it?

Hand 2

Value betting 2 pair.

For some reason, I was just confident I was ahead or tied until the river card. If I check, they could take me off the hand so I did a blocking bet of sorts. What do you think.

I have [ Ac, Qs, 9d, 3c ] in the bb

2 limpers and sb completes.

Flop is [ 9h, Ad, 5d ]

Checked to me, I bet $1 pot. 2 limpers call, sb folds.

turn is [ Qh ]

I bet $4.75 pot and they both call.

River is [ 6c ]

I bet $5 into about $20 pot and they both call. I win. First caller had [ 2d 2h 5s As ] and the other had [ Jh 9s Ah 3s ]. I never had to worry about a diamond, just the backdoor heart.

Hand 3

I get [ 4d, 9s, Kh, Kc ] in mp and limp after 2 limpers. 1 limper behind and blinds play.

Flop is [ 6h, 5c, Kd ]

blinds check, UTG bets $1, 1 caller and I max raise to 5.50. everyone folds including the bettor, caller calls and we are heads up.

Turn is [ 5s ]

Caller bets into me for $6 and I decide to just call with top boat and position.

river is [ 5d ]

He checks. What do you do? I went all in for about $14, he had me covered and he folded. Check behind on river, value bet or all in?

Hand 4

I have full stack and villain in bb has me covered. I limp utg with [ Js, Kc, Jh, 6c ]
There is a min raise, 2 callers, sb fold and villain and I call.

Flop is [ 2h, 9h, Jd ]

We check to bettor who checks and lp guy bets $2.50. Villain calls and I check raise max to 12.50. folds around to villain who calls.

Turn is [ 7d ]

Villain goes all in. I call.

River is a 2 and I win. He had [ Kh 3h 8s Tc ] . Any problem with my play. I was 90% sure he had the straight on the turn.

Hand 5

I'm in bb with [ Ks, Ad, Kc, 6d ] UTG calls, UTG+1 max raises to 1.35. 1 caller to me and I call. UTG limp raises max to 7.10. Original raiser makes it $10 all in. Folds to me, do you call, fold or raise?

Hand 6

2 limpers to me and I limp in lp with [ 6s, Ah, 3s, Ac ] SB max raises to $1.50 and i'm the only caller. I have $33 and villain has me covered.

Flop is [ 2d, Tc, 4s ]
He bets $3.60 and I raise to $10. He calls.

Turn is [ 7s ]

He goes all in. What do you do? its not likely that my spades are good but it takes 2 of his outs and I think I am still in the lead with aces. I put him on a hand like KKTx with 2 spades. Is this a stupid call? I did and river was a Q and he had [ Kh Ts Js Qd ].

For hand 6, that's some pretty amazing junk that he called your flop raise with. Were your really able to put him on a hand that bad? The statistics, while good, strike me as hindsight justification -- again, unless you can consistently put him on a hand that bad.

Maybe I give people too much credit, but I would have put him on a hand much better than TP 2nd kicker. Do you think that I am too generous in my assessments (I very well may be)?

As for hand 5, yes, I've wondered about calling the all-in pre-flop, too. I had a similar situation the other day.

They both had reltively junky holdings, gotting into a pissing contenst preflop, and I would have won a huge pot.

It seems like some people just want to dump chips and/or try to bully someone out of a pot preflop.

I generally don't like this kind of variance, but I am wondering if this happens enough to call it down when I have a decent hand. Is it +EV?

It's sad that this is actually a legitimate question.