OK, so I call in both hands and here comes the river
#1) The board was
[Kh][4c][6s] and the river is the
. He bets $225 into the $385 pot. So does he have AJ and I got outdrawn? Did he have JJ? What about KJ or QT? Does he have nothing?
So the basic question is this.....if I was ahead of AJ, KJ, JJ or QT was calling (and not raising) correct since he only had 2 -5 outs? Can I fold now? I dont think so. So shouldve I have raised to make him pay to try to outdraw me? He already put the $90 in so if I just call, Im letting him draw for free (if hes drawing and is behind).
Its going to cost me $90 (turn bet) + $225 for a total of $315 to see if I have the winner. Should I have just raised to $300 or so and then folded to a reraise (or checked behind on the river? If I raise to $300-$315, HE has to pay the extra amount when hes behind and he gets nothing extra when he hits because Im not putting in another cent on the river. It costs me the same amount to see the river, but I win more when Im ahead and lose the same when Im behind OR get outdrawn. Thoughts?
#2) I call the turn bet. The board showed
[4h][3c][Ks] and the river is the
. He bets $100. He has only another $100 so I put him in. If he has me beat, then so be it, but Im not folding this hand no matter what because hes too short.
If I raise the turn all in, he probably folds everything I beat and calls with a set. But since Im not folding this hand no matter what hits the river, I theorize that its correct to just call the turn in this hand but raise the turn in the other since we still have alot of money behind.
So in summary, my point is that I think its correct to raise the turn when I think Im ahead but the money is still deep and I can lose alot more money if I get outdrawn, but its correct to just call when the money is shorter and the outdraw doesnt cost me much since I will not fold regardless of what falls on the river.
Im not 100% sure Im correct here, so please tell me why Im wrong if you think so.