Opponent: Pretty much vanilla over a small amount of time. Ended up being 27/8 after about 120 hands, but this is about 30 something hands in. Only prior interaction was a preflop limp and then fold when I threw in a button PFR to $2.
Hand 1: [Js] UTG+1 (8 handed)
Villain ($40.10)
Me ($54.90)
Villain posts SB, I limp, MP2 min-raises (habitual minraiser preflop - 50/20/40 - almost all min-raises), Villain calls, BB calls, I call.
[9s][Ah] Pot $4
Villain bets $2.60, I raise to $6.50, MP2 folds, Villain re-raises to $12, I take a little bit of time and call.
Pot $28
Villain pushes $27.10, I ???????
Though process: At 1st I thought there was at least a 50% chance this was a draw with the possibility of Ax to AQ, 2 pair, or a set. Now I'm getting 2-1. I could be ahead or I could have has many as 12 outs which makes me 2.8-1, or worse case scenario I have 8 outs if he has a set.
This is an odds question, but what % of the time does he have to be on a draw combined with what % of the time does he have to have AQ or 2 pair making all 12 outs good for me to call here? Is 2-1 enough?
Hand 2: It probably helps if you knew what Villain had in hand 1 here, but I have [Ks] in the BB.
Villain ($63.10)
Me ($54.25)
Villain open-raises to $1.50 in CO, I re-raise to $4.75 from BB, Villain calls.
[8c][Kd] Pot $9.75
I bet $9.75. He calls.
Thought process: Certainly he doesn't expect me to bet pot if I flopped a set here and I may get a call from a decent Ace.
Pot $29.25
I check, he checks.
Thought process: He pushed the turn last hand. I'm hoping he will think the Ace scared me and I'm giving up. Didn't work this time.
Pot $29.25
I bet $15, he calls.
Thought process: What I really wanted was to bet little enough that there was a good chance he would see it as weakness and raise me, but enough so that if he just called I didn't feel like I let him off too cheap? Is this even possible?