I lost both of these hands but still don tthink I played them badly. Be honest.
#1) 1 limper. SB completes. I check my
[Jc] in the BB.
Pot is $3 (This is $100NL). Flop
[As][Kd]. SB bets $3. I call and limper folds.
Pot $9. Turn
. He bets $6. I call
Pot $21. River
. He bets $21. I call.
OK, so he 3 outted me with A4. If I raise the flop he will fold any K and will probably not fold any ace. I have no read that says that, I just dont think many people at these stakes will fold an ace. So I either saved money by not raising, or I let myself get outdrawn by being so passive. Which is it?
#2) Same guy who I now know is a LAG raises $3.50 UTG. On a different table he raised QJ OOP and I called with 44 after limping. He bet a Q33 flop and I called. He check / called my 1/2 pot bet on the turn and river went check / check. Because of that hand I decide to flat call him with my
[Ks] in the cutoff. Both blinds call.
Pot $14. Flop
[6c][4d]. Blinds check, Villain bets $8. I raise to $26. I was going to flat call his flop bet and play it like I did the 44 hand, but raise because of the other 2 guys in the hand. He calls the raise.
Pot $66. Turn
. He checks and I shove in. He calls with
[Ts].
So did I let myself get outdrawn by not reraising preflop? Or did HE make the mistake by thinking his JT was good there and he just got lucky? The guy started talking about how he leveled me after the hand. Of course i couldve reraised preflop and avoided getting stacked but didnt I play the hand correctly against a guy who will raise JT UTG and refuse to fold TP?
I didnt do the math, but I would bet that if I tried to figure the EV of both plays and try to guess how often he would call a preflop reraise (probably not often) and figure how often he folds the turn as played if he doesnt hit the T, my play is better than reraising preflop. Thoughts?